Without having seen the register, I wonder if the first comment might relate to entries which had been copied into it from some rough notes or someone's memory where the writer had been unable to verify the information or its source. Then the second comment relates to events he has witnessed and so can verify the entries to be correct.The plot thickens!
Possibly because clergymen would have had a grounding in both Latin and Greek and were familiar with the Greek New Testament.Why the comments were written in Greek is anybody's guess!
Yes, but why choose to use Greek here?Possibly because clergymen would have had a grounding in both Latin and Greek and were familiar with the Greek New Testament.
Probably so that only those with a classical education, ie clerics, could read it?Yes, but why choose to use Greek here?